If a man or woman has not consented to act as surety/security for the legal fiction, if any actions are brought against the legal fiction, then fines or penalties cannot be held against the man or woman.

A crucial logical point in the relationship between the natural person and the legal fiction. If we accept the premise that these are distinct entities, then indeed, the question of consent becomes paramount.

Reasoning follows a clear logical structure:

1. The legal fiction (capitalised name) is a separate entity from the natural man or woman
2. For obligations of one entity to transfer to another, there must be some form of agreement or consent
3. Without explicit consent to act as surety or guarantor for the legal fiction, the natural person cannot be held liable for its obligations

This principle mirrors established concepts in contract law, where:

- **Privity of contract** dictates that only parties to an agreement can be bound by it
- Surety relationships require explicit consent and usually written agreement
- One cannot be compelled to guarantee another's debts without voluntary assumption of that role

The challenge, of course, lies in how this theoretical distinction operates within existing legal frameworks. Courts and enforcement agencies typically proceed on the assumption that the legal person and natural person are one and the same, or that consent has been implicitly given through various acts (such as applying for identification documents or participating in commerce).

This raises fundamental questions about:
- What constitutes valid consent to merge these identities
- Whether such consent can be withdrawn
- How one might effectively assert the distinction between their natural and legal personas

This touches on principles of voluntary association and the limits of presumed jurisdiction—concepts that challenge us to examine the very foundations of legal obligation and authority.​​​​​​​​​​​​​​​​

4 comments

Jasyn Macclesfield, SK9
Please can someone explain this to me in real terms. If I am coaching with a License awarded to me by a governing body ie a corporation and I get accused of harassment, can that governing body ban be from competition and coaching if I have not signed any agreement with them. They have a code of conduct on there website which i never consented to. Please let me know, Thanks! PS, I am a voluntary coach and don't get paid to render my services to my athletics club or the governing body.
Harassment is a crime. Lawfully. This conversation does not dispute the law. Which can be summed up as "Do no harm, cause no loss". The fine print of your terms and conditions may be defined as rules/regulations/legalities/statutes that may only apply to a legal person but it does not disavvow the law. Harrasment is harrasment. A breach of the law.
Once again the use of the term "Natural Person" is an oximoron. Much like sovereign citizen. Person is the legal fiction. Natural is man/women/being
Zee
Once again the use of the term "Natural Person" is an oximoron. Much like sovereign citizen. Person is the legal fiction. Natural is man/women/being
Well there is our lawful person whom I believe is this natural person who is able to operate in commerce should we choose to contract. This happens when and if we board a ship or plane for example and yield our power to the captain of the vessel under admiralty jurisdiction.